[members-discuss] Executive Board Resolution on Legacy Internet Resource Holders

On Mon, Sep 26, 2016, at 23:20, Tim Armstrong wrote:
> So you own a piece of land and want to sell a small part of that land to
> someone, so you agree on a price, sign a contract, pay VAT on the
> transaction, and now the land sold more belongs to the buyer. Contract
> law
> 101.
> 
> Now let's apply your logic: so you own a piece of land and want to sell a
> small piece of that land to someone, so you agree on a price, sign a
> contract, pay VAT on the transaction, and now the land belongs to someone
> else who the buyer now leases it of for a fee.
> 
> Now correct me if I'm wrong, but I don't think that would make sense to a
> lawyer.

Depending on where in the world you live, things may not be that way:
Especially, you don't juste sell the land (all of it or part, doesn't
matter) for the simple fact that you were sitting there for quite some
time.
Supposing that the ownership part is fixed, you can only sell it to
someone that can be identified (usually meaning it is registered
somewhere).
Legally, there is no property transfer if it isn't registerend in the
"land register" (or whatever it's called), which usually can't happen
unless some of the previous criteria (and some other are fulfilled).
Ah, and you don't pay the VAT for land transfers (but you must pay other
fees).

But that all comes to "Is it really, really, really property ?
Everywhere ?"